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CBSE Net 2016 Paper I Answer Key with questions Unofficial

Jul 21, 2016 Hit: 958 Written by 

1. Which country enjoyed competitive advantages in automobile industry for decades?

  1. South Korea
  2. Japan
  3. Mexico
  4. Malaysia

Answer: 2

2. Why labour-based competitive advantages of India and Singapore cannot be sustained in IT and service sectors?

  1. Due to diminishing levels of skill
  2. Due to capital-intensive technology making inroads
  3. Because of new competitors
  4. Because of shifting of labour-based advantage in manufacturing industries.

Answer: 3

3. What are the barriers to effective communication?

  1. Moralising, being judgemental and comments of consolation.
  2. Dialogue, summary and self-review.
  3. Use of simple words, cool reaction and defensive attitude.
  4. Personal statement, eye contact and simple narration.

Answer: 1

4. The choice of communication partners is influenced by factors of

  1. Proximity, utility, loneliness
  2. Utility, secrecy, dissonance
  3. Secrecy, dissonance, deception
  4. Dissimilarity, dissonance, deviance

Answer: 1

5. As a teacher, select the best option to ensure your effective presence in the classroom.

  1. Use of peer command
  2. Making aggressive statements
  3. Adoption of well-established posture
  4. Being authoritarian

Answer: 3

6. Every communicator has to experience

  1. Manipulated emotion
  2. Anticipatory excitement
  3. The issue of homophiles
  4. Status dislocation

Answer: 2

7. Imagine you are working in an educational institution where people are of equal status. Which method of communication is best suited and normally employed in such a context?

  1. Horizontal communication
  2. Vertical communication
  3. Corporate communication
  4. Cross communication

Answer: 1

8. Identify the important element a teacher has to take cognizance of while addressing students in a classroom.

  1. Avoidance of proximity
  2. Voice modulation
  3. Repetitive pause
  4. Fixed posture

Answer: 2

9. Two railway tickets from city A and B three ticketd from city A to C cost Rs. 177. Three tickets from city A to B and two tickets from city A to C city Rs. 173. The fare for city B from city A will be Rs.

  1. 25
  2. 27
  3. 30
  4. 33

Answer: 4

10. A person walks 10 m infront and 10 m to the right. Then every time turning to his left, he walk 5, 15 and 15 m respectively. How far is he from his starting point?

  1. 20 m
  2. 15 m
  3. 10 m
  4. 5 m

Answer: 4

11. A sister of B. F is daughter of G. C is mother of B. D is father of C. E is mother of D. A is related to D as

  1. Grand daughter
  2. Daughter
  3. Daughter-in-law
  4. Sister

Answer: 1

12. In the series AB, EDC, FGHI, ________? ________ OPQRST, The missing term is

  1. JKLMN
  2. JMKNL
  3. NMLKJ
  4. NMKLJ

Answer: 3

13. Among the following propositions two are related in such a way that one is the denial of the other. Which are those propositions? Select the correct code:

Propositions:

  1. All women are equal to men
  2. Some women are equal to men
  3. Some women are not equal to men
  4. No women are equal to men

Codes:

  1. (a) and (b)
  2. (a) and (d)
  3. (c) and (d)
  4. (a) and (c)

Answer: 4

14. In certain code, SELECTION is coded as QCJCARGML. The code of AMERICANS will be

  1. YKCPGAYLQ
  2. BNFSJDBMR
  3. QLYAGPCKY
  4. YQKLCYPAG

Answer: 1

15. In the series 3, 11, 23, 39, 59, ________ The next term will be

  1. 63
  2. 73
  3. 83
  4. 93

Answer: 3

16. Select the code, which is not correct about Venn diagram:

(1) Venn diagram represents propositions as well as classes.

(2) It can provide clear method of notation.

(3) It can be either valid or invalid.

(4) It can provide the direct method of testing the validity.

Answer: 3

17. Select the code, which is not correct in the context of deductive argument with two premises:

(1) An argument with one true premise, one false premise and a false conclusion may be valid.

(2) An argument with two true premises and a false conclusion may be valid.

(3) An argument with one true premise, one false premise and a false conclusion may be valid.

(4) An argument with two false premises and a false conclusion may be valid.

Answer: 2

18. Given below two premise and four conclusions are drawn from them (taking singly or together). Select the code that states the conclusion validly drawn.

Premises: (i) All religious persons are emotional.

(ii) Ram is a religious person.

Conclusion: (a) Ram is emotional.

(b) All emotional persons are religious.

(c) Ram is not a non-religious person.

(d) Some religious persons are not emotional.

Codes:

(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

(2) (a) only

(3) (a) and (c) only

(4) (b) and (c) only

Answer: 3

19. If the proposition ‘All thieves are poor’ is false, which of the following propositions can be claimed certainly to be true?

Propositions:

(1) Some thieves are poor.

(2) Some thieves are not poor.

(3) No thief is poor.

(4) No poor person is a thief.

Answer: 2

20. Consider the following statement and select the correct code stating the nature of the argument involved in it:

To suppose that the earth is the only populated world in the infinite space is as absurd as to assert that in an entire field of millet only one grain will grow.

(1) Astronomical

(2) Anthropological

(3) Deductive

(4) Analogical

Answer: 4

21. In which year, the percentage profit earned by the company B is less than that of company A?

(1) 2012

(2) 2013

(3) 2014

(4) 2015

Answer: 2

22. If the total expenditure of the two companies was Rs. 9 lakh in the year 2012 and the expenditure of A and B were in the ratio2: 1, then what was the income of the company A in that year?

(1) Rs. 9.2 lakh

(2) Rs. 8.1 lakh

(3) Rs. 7.2 lakh

(4) Rs. 6.0 lakh

Answer: 2

23. What is the average percentage profit earned by the company B?

(1) 35%

(2) 42%

(3) 38%

(4) 40%

Answer: 3

2

  2 2 2

24. What percentage of respondents aged 31 + indicated a favorite style other than classical music?

  1. 64%
  2. 60%
  3. 75%
  4. 50%

Answer: 3

25. Approximately what percentage of the total sample were aged 21 – 30?

  1. 31%
  2. 23%
  3. 25%
  4. 14%

Answer: 3

26. Approximately what percentage of the total sample indicates that Hip-Hop is their favourite style of music?

  1. 6%
  2. 8%
  3. 14%
  4. 12%

Answer: 4

27. The process of copying files to a CD-ROM is known as________

  1. Burning
  2. Zipping
  3. Digitizing
  4. Ripping

Answer: 1

28. An unsolicited e-mail message sent to many recipient at once is a________

  1. Worm
  2. Virus
  3. Threat
  4. Spam

Answer: 4

29. The statement “ the study, development, implementation, support or management of computer-based information systems, particularly software applications and computer hardware” refers to

  1. Information Technology (IT)
  2. Information and collaborative Technology (ICT)
  3. Information and data Technology (IDT)
  4. Artificial Intelligence (AI)

Answer: 1

30. If the binary equivalent of the decimal number 48 is 110000, then the binary equivalent of the decimal number 51 is given by

  1. 110011
  2. 110010
  3. 110001
  4. 110100

Answer: 1

31. Identify the air pollutant in urban areas which irritates eyes and also respiratory tract of human beings.

  1. Particulate matter
  2. Oxides of nitrogen
  3. Surface ozone
  4. Carbon monoxide

Answer: 3

32. Which of the following is the largest source of water pollution in major rivers of india?

  1. Untreated sewage
  2. Agriculture run-off
  3. Unregulated small scale industries
  4. Religious practices

Answer: 1

33. Sustainable development goals have specific targets to be achieved by

  1. 2022
  2. 2030
  3. 2040
  4. 2050

Answer: 2

34 Indian government’s target of producing power from biomass by the year 2022, is

  1. 50 MW
  2. 25 MW
  3. 15 MW
  4. 10 MW

Answer: 4

35. Assertion (A): Conserving our soil resources is critical to human survival.

Reason (R): Soil is home to many micro-organisms and contains minerals.

Choose the correct code:

  1. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  2. Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
  3. (A) is true and (R) is false
  4. (A) is false and (R) is true

Answer: 2

36. World Meteorological Organization’s (WMO) objective has been to reduce the number of deaths due to hydro meteorological disasters over the decade 2010 – 2019 by (with reference to the decade 1994 – 2003)

  1. 25%
  2. 50%
  3. 75%
  4. 80%

Answer: 2

37. ________is a type of memory circuitry that holds the computer’s start-up routine.

  1. RIM (Read Initial Memory)
  2. RAM (Random Access Memory)
  3. ROM (Read Only Memory)
  4. Cache Memory

Answer: 3

38. An ASCII is a character-encoding scheme that is employed by personal computers in order to represent various characters, numbers and control keys that the computer used selects on the keyboard. ASCII is an acronym for

  1. American Standard Code for Information Interchange
  2. American Standard Code for Intelligent Information
  3. American Standard Code for Information Integrity
  4. American Standard Code for Isolated Information

Answer: 1

39. The National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC) has been declared unconstitutional by

  1. The Supreme Court of India
  2. The High Court
  3. The High Court and the Supreme Court both
  4. The President of India

Answer: 1

40. Which of the following statements about the Indian political system is/are correct?

(a) The president is both Head of the State and Head of the Government.

(b) Parliament is Supreme.

(c) The Supreme Court is the guardian of the Constitution.

(d) The Directive Principles of State Policy are justifiable.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

  1. (a), (b), (c) and (d)
  2. (b), (c) and (d)
  3. (b) and (c)
  4. (c) only

Answer: 4

41. Which of the following are the fundamental duties?

(a) To respect the National Flag.

(b) To protect and improve the natural environment.

(c) For a parent to provide opportunities for education to his/her child.

(d) To protect monuments and places of national importance.

Select the correct answer from the codes given:

Codes:

(1) (a), (b) and (c)

(2) (a), (b) and (d)

(3) (a), (c) and (d)

(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

Answer: 4

42. Which of the following statements are correct in respect of Niti Aayog?

(a) It is a constitutional body.

(b) It is a statutory body.

(c) It is neither a constitutional body nor a statutory body.

(d) It is a think-tank.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(1) (a) and (d)

(2) (b) and (d)

(3) (c) and (d)

(4) (b), (c) and (d)

Answer: 3

43. Which of the following core value among the institutions of higher education are promoted by the NAAC (National Assessment and Accreditation Council)?

(a) Contributing to national development.

(b) Fostering global competencies among students and teachers.

(c) Inculcating a value system among students and teachers.

(d) Promoting the optimum utilization of the infrastructure.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(1) (b), (c) and (d)

(2) (a), (b) and (c)

(3) (a), (c) and (d)

(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

Answer: 2

44. The best way for providing value education is through

(1) discussions on scriptural texts

(2) lecture/discourses on values

(3) seminars/symposia on values

(4) mentoring/reflective sessions on values

45. A college level assistant professor has planned his/her lectures with an intent to develop cognitive dimensions of students centered on skills of analysis and synthesis. Below, given are two sets of items Set – I consisting of levels of cognitive interchange and Set – II comprising basic requirements for promoting them. Match the two sets and indicate your answer by choosing the correct alternative from the code:

Set – I

(Levels of Cognitive Interchange)

a. Memory level

b. Understanding level

c. Reflective level

Set – II

(Basic requirements for promoting cognitive interchange)

i. Giving opportunity for discriminating examples and non-examples of a point.

ii. Recording the important points made during the presentations.

iii. Asking the students to discuss various items of information

iv. Critically analyzing the points to be made and discussed.

Codes:

a b c

(1) ii iv i

(2) iii iv ii

(3) ii i iv

(4) i ii iii

Answer: 3

46. Which set of learner characteristics may be considered helpful in designing effective teaching-learning systems? Select the correct alternative from the codes given below:

(i) Prior experience of learners in respect of the subject.

(ii) Interpersonal relationships of learner’s family friends.

(iii) Ability of the learners in respect of the subject.

(iv) Student’s language background.

(v) Interest of students in following the prescribed dress code.

(vi) Motivational – orientation of the students.

Codes:

(1) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(2) (i), (iii), (iv) and (vi)

(3) (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)

(4) (iii), (iv), (v) and (vi)

Answer: 2

47. Assertion (A): The purpose of higher education is to promote critical and creative thinking abilities among students.

Reason (R): These abilities ensure job placements

Choose the correct answer from the following code:

  1. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  2. Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
  3. (A) is true and (R) is false
  4. (A) is false and (R) is true

Answer: 2

48. Match the items of the first set with that of the second set in respect of evaluation system. Choose the correct code:

Types of Evaluations

 

Set-I SET-II
a. Formative evaluation i. Evaluating cognitive and co-cognitive aspects with regularity
b. Summative evaluation ii. Tests and their interpretations based on a group and certain yardsticks
c. Continuous and comprehensive evaluation iii. Grading the final learning outcomes
d. Norm and criterion referenced tests iv. Quizzes and discussions

Answer: 1

49. Select the alternative which consists of positive factors contributing to effectiveness of teaching:

List of factors:

    1. Teacher’s knowledge of the subject.
    2. Teacher’s socio-economic background.
    3. Communication skill of the teacher.
    4. Teacher’s ability to please the students.
    5. Teacher’s personal contact with students.
    6. Teacher’s competence in managing and monitoring the classroom transactions

Codes:

  1. (b), (c) and (d)
  2. (c), (d) and (f)
  3. (b), (d) and (c)
  4. (a), (c) and (f)

Answer: 4

50. The use of teaching aids is justified on the grounds of

  1. Attracting student’s attention in the class room.
  2. Minimizing indiscipline problem in the classroom.
  3. Optimizing learning outcomes of students.
  4. Effective engagement of students in learning tasks.

Answer: 4

51. The format of thesis writing is the same as in

  1. Preparation of a research paper/article
  2. Writing of seminar presentation
  3. A research dissertation
  4. Presenting a workshop/conference paper

Answer: 3

52. In qualitative research paradigm, which of the following features may be considered critical?

  1. Data collection with standardized research tools.
  2. Sampling design with probability sample techniques.
  3. Data collection with bottom-up empirical evidences.
  4. Data gathering to take with top-down systematic evidences.

Answer: 3

53. From the following list of statement identify the set, which has negative implications for ‘research ethics ’:

  1. A researcher critically looks at the findings of another research.
  2. Related studies are cited without proper references.
  3. Research findings are made the basis for policymaking.
  4. Conduct of practitioner is screened in terms of reported research evidences.
  5. A research study is replicated with a view to verify the evidences from other researches.
  6. Both policy making and policy implementing processes are regulated in terms of preliminary studies.
  1. I, II and III
  2. II, III and IV
  3. II, IV and VI
  4. I, III and V

Answer: 3

54. In a research on the effect of child-rearing practices on stress –proneness of children in competing school projects, the hypothesis formulated is that ‘child rearing practices do influence stress- proneness’. At the data-analysis stage a null hypothesis is advanced to find out the tenability of research hypothesis. On the basis of the evidence available, the null hypothesis is rejected at 0.01 level of significance. What decision may be warranted in respect of the research hypothesis?

  1. The research hypothesis will also be rejected.
  2. The research hypothesis will be accepted.
  3. Both the research hypothesis and the null hypothesis will be rejected.
  4. No decision can be taken in respect of the research hypothesis.

Answer: 2

55. A research intends to explore the effect of possible factors for the organization of effective mid-day meal interventions. Which research method will be most appropriate for this study?

  1. Historical method
  2. Descriptive survey method
  3. Experimental method
  4. Ex-post factor method

Answer: 4

56. Which of the following is an initial mandatory requirement for pursuing research?

  1. Developing a research design
  2. Formulating a research question
  3. Deciding about the data analysis procedure
  4. Formulating a research hypothesis

Answer: 2

57. How can an organization enjoy competitive advantage sustainable overtime?

  1. Through regional capital flows
  2. Through regional interactions among business players.
  3. By making large bank, industries and markets coalesced.
  4. By effective use of various instrumentalities.

Answer: 4

58. What is required to ensure competitive advantages in specific markets?

  1. Access to capital
  2. Common office buildings
  3. Superior knowledge
  4. Common metals

Answer: 3

59. The passage also mentions about the trend of

  1. Global financial flow
  2. Absence of competition in manufacturing industry
  3. Regionalization of capitalists
  4. Organizational incompatibility

Answer: 1

60. What does the author lay stress on in the passage?

  1. International commerce
  2. Labour-Intensive industries
  3. Capital resource management
  4. Knowledge-driven competitive advantage

Answer: 4

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